AIBE 20 Unofficial Answer Key 2025 (OUT); Check set-wise questions with answers, exam analysis

AIBE 20 Unofficial Answer Key 2025 for question paper sets A, B, C and D is now available here for all the questions. Check the question-wise AIBE 20 unofficial answer key 2025 prepared by CollegeDekho subject matter experts.

AIBE 20 Unofficial Answer Key 2025 OUT

AIBE 20 Unofficial Answer Key 2025 : The Bar Council of India conducted the AIBE 20 Exam 2025 on November 30, 2025, from 1 PM to 4 PM . Candidates can access the questions asked, along with unofficial answers for each, which are now available. It is important to note that the answers are provided for reference purposes only to help candidates evaluate their performance. The Bar Council of India will release the official answer key in due course.The official AIBE 20 answer key 2025 is expected within 7-14 days from the date of conclusion of exam.

Four sets of question papers (Set A, Set B, Set C, and Set D) are circulated, containing the same questions in a shuffled order —answers are provided question-wise to help you assess your performance, regardless of your set. Additionally, student reviews and an exam analysis are available to provide insights into the nature and difficulty of the paper.

AIBE 21 Expected Exam Date	Official AIBE 20 Answer Key 2025 Anytime Soon; Check tentative date and time	AIBE 20 Qualifying Marks 2025 for General, OBC, SC and ST categories

AIBE 20 Unofficial Answer Key 2025 (Set A, B, C and D)

Candidates can check out the AIBE 20 Unofficial Answer Key 2025, which includes all 100 questions and answers for each.

Question Number	Question	Answer
1	If a bailiff executes an eviction based on a civil court order later declared void for lack of jurisdiction, what protection does Section 78 of the Indian Penal Code provide ? (A) The bailiff is punishable as the order was invalid from the beginning (B) The bailiff can be punished only with a reduced penalty (C) The bailiff is exempt if he neted in good faith under the order (D) The bailiff is required to compensate the evicted person	The bailiff is exempt if he neted in good faith under the order
2	Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, what is the maximum number of consecutive days an offender may be kept in solitary confinement at a time?	Fourteen
3	According to the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, what is the fixed amount of empensation payable in the event of death caused by a motor vehicle accident inder no-fault	Fifty thousand rupees
4	Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): An employee can be deemed to be in continuous service for one year only if he has worked for 365 days in the preceding twelve months, without any interruption. Reason (R): Under the Payment of Gantnity Act, 1972, continuons service may also include periods of interruption due to sickness, accident, leave, lay-off, strike, or lock-out not caused by the employee's Fault In the context of the above assertion and renson under the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972, which one of the following is correct? (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (t) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not dhe correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true	(A) is false, but (R) is true
5	Read the following statements and choose the correct option Statement 1: Under the Indian Penal Code, if a person harbours an offender who has escaped custody for an offence purushable wprisonment up to 3 years, he shall be punished with imprisonment up to 7 years, Statement 2: The law provides an exception for harbouring or concealing by the husband or wife of the offender In the context of the above statements under the Indian Penal Code, which one of the following is correct?	Only Statement 2 is true
6	If a person attempts an offence punishable with a maximum of 10 years of imprisonment. what is the minimum years of imprisonment that can be imposed under Section 62 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023?	Five years
7	A juvenile aged 14 years brought before the court for an offence not punishable wth death of imprisonment for life. Under which provision of the Code of Criminal procedure 1973, will the case primarily fall?	Section 27
8	Under Section 290(1) of Bharatiya Nagarik Sumisha Sanhita, 2023, within howmany days from the date of framing of charge can an accused file an application for plea bargaining?	30
9	Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, if a person is ordered to pay a fine of Rs 4000, but fails to pay, so waht is the maximum simple Imprisonment the court may impose on the defaulter?	Two months
10	According to Section 18 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, what is the minimum period of practice as an advocate, required to be commeered eligible for appointment as a Public Prosecutor or Additional Public Prosecutor ?	7 Years
11	Under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, when can facts that are otherwise irrelevant can be considered as relevant?	When they are inconsistent with a fact in fetge or relevant fact
12	What condition must be satiafied for prior evidence to be relevant under Section 33 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?	The proceeding was between the same parties or theit representatives in interest,
13	During a court trial, the defence lawyer objects to the admissibility of certain papers produced as evidence. The judge clarifies that only documents categorized as public document Evidence Act, 1872, can be accepted without strict proof. Which category of documents would fall under public documents in this context?	Judicial and executive acts of public officers
14	Which condition must be satisfied for things said or done by one conspirator to be admissible against others under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyan, 2023?	There must be reasonable ground to believe a conspiracy exists
15	As per Section 30 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, if a Magistrate sentenced a person to imprisonment and a fine, what is the maximum imprisonment he may impose in default of payment of the fine?	6 months
16	As per the Constitution of India, afler the 86th Constitutionl Amendment, which directive priniciple was modified to ensure early childhood care and education below the age of six?	Article 45
17	According to the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, who can direct the Court that passed the decree to take security when an execution order is challenged in appeal?	The Appellate Court hearing the appeal
18	Under the Code of Civil Procedury, 1908, how many High Court Judges constitute the judicail membership of the Rule Committee?	Three Judges of the High Court
19	According to The Copyright Act, 1957, what is ordinarly the maximum punsihment for copy infringement under Section 63?	Imprisonment up to three years and line up to two lakh rupees
20	As per the Constitution of India, a linguistic community in India seeks to preserve its unique script and literature. Which constitutional provision guarantees them the right to conserve the same?	Article 29(1)
21	Under Section 58 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, what is the maximum period of detention in civil prison for a decree amount exceeding Rs 5,000?	Three months
22	Which of the following situation falls within Section 58(1)(b) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?	Decree for 6,200, detention up to six months
23	A civil suit is filed against Ajay, and the court issues summons requiring him to appear. After receiving the summons, Ajay consults his lawyer to understand the timeline for filing his written statement defence under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. Within how many days from the date of service of summons must he submit his written statement ?	Thirty days
24	How long does the registered address furnished under Section 14A(1) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, remain valid if not changed?	Two years after final determination of the cause
25	According to Section 25(a) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, what happens if the claimant fails to submit his statement of claim without sufficient cause?"	The tribunal terminates the proceedings
26	If a case is transmitted to the Central Government under Section 10 of the Special Marriage Act, 1954, what is the time limit for solemnizing the marriage after its decision?	Three months
27	What is the maximum terms of imprisonment prescrided under Section 31 of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act. 2005 for breach of protection order?	One year
28	Under which provision of the Indian Constitution can a Public Interest Litigation (PIL) be filed directly in the Supreme Court?	Article 32
29	Under the Land Acquisition Act, 1894, what is the minimum period that must elapse between the publication of notice and the appearance of persons interested before the Collector ?	Not less than 15 days
30	Under which provision can a citizen file a public case in the Court of Magistrate regarding issues of public interest?	Section 133 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
31	According to Section 44A A(2)(i) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, a person carrying on business must maintain books of account if income from business or profession exceeds:	Rs 1,20,000
32	Under the Patents Act, 1970, which situation prevents a patent application from being published even after the expiry of the prescribed period?	When secrecy direction is imposed under Section 35.
33	Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) Assertion (A): Any person having an interest in a newspaper declared forfeited, m Court to set aside the declaration within two months of its publication in the Officia Reason (R): The Special Bench of the High Court to hear such applications mu exactly three judges, regardless of the strength of that High Court. In the context of the above assertion and reason under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973,Which one of the following is correct? (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (D) (A) is false. but (R) is true	(A) is true, but (R) is false.
34	Read the following statements and choose the correct option. Statement 1: Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, admissions are generally relevant and may be proved against the person making them, but cannot ordinarily be proved by or on behalf of that person. Statement 2: An admission can still be proved on behalf of the person making it if it relates to the existence of a state of mind or body, made at or about the time when such condition existed, and is supported by conduct showing its truthfulness. In the context of the above statements under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which one of the following is correct? (A) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false (B) Only Statement 1 is true (C) Only Statement 2 is true (D) Both the Statements are true	Both the Statements are true
35	Which type of allowance qualifies for deduction under Section 16(ii) of the Income-tax Act, 1961?	Entertainment Allowance granted to government employees
36	Read the given statements and choose the correct option, Statement 1: Under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, a negotiable instrument made, drawn, accepted, or transferred without consideration creates no obligation of payment between the parties to the transaction Statement 2: According to the same Act, if the consideration for which a negotiable instrument was issued fails in part, the holder in immediate relation is entitled to recover only the proportionate amount corresponding to the consideration actually received. In the context of the above statements under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, which one of the following is correct? (A) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false (B) Only Staternent. I is thie (C) Only Statement 2 is true (D) Both the Statements are true	Both the Statements are true
37	In the following question, a statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II. Statement: Under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, when an offence is committed by a company, every person who was directly in charge of and responsible to the company at the time of the offence, as well as the company itself, is deensed guilty. However, a person may escape liatulity if he proves that the offence was comunitted without his knowledge or that ho exercised due diligence to prevent it. Conclusions: I. A company as swell as its responible officers may be held liable for environmental offences under the Act. II. An officer of a company can never escape Iability once the company is found guilty of an offence. In the context of the above Statement and conclusions under the Environment (Protection) Act, l986 which one of the following is correct?	Only Conclusion I follows
38	Under Section 24(a) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, what percentage of the annual value of an income from house property is allowed as a standard deduction?	30
39	After a government notification is issued for acquiring Mr. Mehta's farmland under the Land Acquisition Act, 1894, he notices that the income from his crops steadily decreases until the authorities finally take possession. He approaches the court claiming compensation for this reduction in profits. According to the Act, what type of loss is compensable in such a case ?	Bona fide diminution of profits due to acquisition process
40	According to Section 35A of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, what is the maximum amount a Court can award as compensatory costs in ordinary cases?	3,000
41	According to the Indian Contract Act, 1872, when is the communication of an acceptance completeagainst the proposer	When it is dispatched beyond the control of the acceptor
42	Rahul rents a shop in the city for running his retail business. Later, the landlord decides to terminate the lease. Since the lease is for purposes other than agriculture or manufacturing and there is no special contract between the parties, the landlord wonders how many days' notice he must legall give under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, to end the lease. What is the required notice period?	Fifteen day's notice
43	According to the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, what is the maximum sentence of imprisonment that a Magistrate may pass in a summary trial under Section 1432	One year's imprisonment
44	In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II Statement: As per Section 157 of the Companies Act. 2013 every company must, within fifteen days receiving intimation under Section 156, furnish the Director Identification Number (DIN) of all its Registrar with prescribed fees. Failure to comply attrsets penalties Conclusions: I: If a company fails to furnish the DIN, it can be penalized. II: Every officer of the company in default is flable for penalties. In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions, which one of the following is correct?	Both Conclusion I and II follow
45	Read the following Statements related to the Information Technology Act, 2000. Choose the correct option. Statement 1: Under the Information Technology Act, 2000, adigital signature certificate may be suspended by the Certifying Authority on the request of the subsciber, an authorized representative, or if it is considered necessary in the public interest. Statement 2: Under the same Act, a Digital Signature certificate can remain suspended indefinately, without providing the subscriber an opportunity of being heard	Only Statement 1 is true
46	In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II. Statement: According to the Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, the appropriate Government credits 15,000 to the Child and Adolescent Labour Rehabilitation Fund for each child or adolescent for whom the fine amount from the employer has been deposited. The amount in the Fund is deposited or invested in banks, and the interest accrued is also payable to the child or adolescent. Conclusions: I. The child or adolescent is entitled not only to the credited amount but also to the interest accrued on it II. The Government is not required to deposit any money other than what is collected as fines from the employer.	Only Conclusion I follows
47	Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): The Bharatiya Nyaya Santita, 2023, prescribes the death penalty for certain forms of gang rape Reason (R): The purpose of this provision is to make alf sexual offences non-bailable In the context of the above assertion and reason, winch one of the following is correct ? (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true	Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
48	Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reas (R) Assertion (A): Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, if the proclaimed per appears within the time specified in the proclamation, the Court shall release the attached property. Reason (R): The attachment of property under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023ntended to compel the appearance of the proclaimed person before the Court, not to permanently dep him of his property. In the context of the above assertion and reason, which one of the following is correet ?	Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
49	Read the given Statements and choose the correct option. A dispute arises between two companies regarding the enforcement of their arbitration clause. Examine the following statements: Statement 1: An arbitration agreement must be in writing, and it can be containco exchange of letters, telex, telegrams, or electronic communications. a contract, a Statement 2: An arbitration agreement may be implied solely from the conduct of th jarties, any written record.	Only Statement I is true
50	In the following question, a statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II. Statement: According to the Advocates Act, 1961, when the term of a State Bar Council expires without an election. the Bar Council of India shall constitute a Special Committee consisting of the ex officio member of the State Bar Council as Chairman and two nominated members. The Special Committee has the power to discharge all functions of the State Bar Council until the new Council is constituted, and elections must be held within six months unless the period is extended by the Bar Council of India. Conclusions: I. The Special Committee is empowered to handle pending disciplinary matters of the State Bar Council. II. The Bar Council of India may extend the six-month period for holding elections to the State Bar Council, for recorded reasons. In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions, which one of the following is correct?	Both Conclusion I and II follow
51	Read the given statements and choose the correct option Statement 1: Under the Income-tax Act, 1961, a deduction equal to 30% of amount value is allowed while computing income from house property. Statement 2: Where the property has been acquired or constructed with borrowed capital, the maximum deduction for interest payable on such capital in capped at Rs 2,00,000, subject to conditions.	Both the Statements are true
52	Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reas (0) Assertion (A): Under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, a daughter in a Joint Hindu Family governed by Mitaksharn Law becomes a coparcenar by birth in her own right, just like a Reason (R): This provision grants daughters the same righn, habilities, and doabilities in cop property as those of sons In the context of the above assertus and reason under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, which one of the following is correct?	Both (A) and (R) are ture and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
53	As per the Indian Contract Act, 1872, an acceptance must be absolute and unqualified. What is the legal effect if an offeree's response to a proposal introduces a new term?	It constitutes a counter-proposal, thereby rejecting the original proposal.
54	The Indian Contract Act, 1872, provides for specific situations where an agreement without consideration is notvoid. Which of the following agreements is valid despite the lack of fresh consideration?	A written and registered promise by a husband, out of natural love and affection, to transfer a property to his wife.
55	In the context of delegated legislation, the judicial doctrine that prevents a legislature from conferring "uncontrolled legislative power" on the administration is known as the doctrine of ______	Excessive Delegation
56	For a petition for nullity of marriage under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, on the ground that consent was obtained by fraud, what is a statutory bar to granting the decree?	The petitioner has lived with the respondent as husband and wife after the discovery of the fraud
57	In the absence of an agreement between the parties, the arbitration proceedings are said to have commenced under Section 21 of The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996	on the date the request for reference is received by the respondent
58	Which of the following public interest litigations expanded Article 21 of the Indian Constitution to include right to enjoyment of pollution-free water and air?	Subhash Kumar v State of Bihar, (1991) 1 SCC 598
59	Which Public Interest Litigation case resulted in the Supreme Court of India laying down the principle of 'Absolute Liability"?	M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086
60	In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court of India has pointed out that the rule of nemo judex in causa sua is subject to the doctrine of necessity?	J. Mohapatra & Co. v. State of Orissa, (1984) 4 SCC 103
61	As per Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 for Rex Judicata to be applicable on a subsequent suit, the former suit I. has been finally decided. II. can only be instituted prior to the subsequent suit. III. relates to the same matter directly and substantially in issue in the subsequent suit IV. is between the same parties, or between parties under whom they or any of them	I, III and IV
62	Where the decree is for the payment of money, execution by detention in prison shall not be undered unless, after giving the judgment-debtor an opportunity of showing cause, the Court is satisfied that the I. judgment-debtor, is likely to abscond or leave the local limits of the jurisdiction of the Court. II. judgment-debtor has, before the institution of the suit in which the decree was passed, dihest transferred any part of his property. III. decree is for a sum for which the judgment-debtor was bound in a fiduciary capacity to aunt IV. judgment-debtor has, or has had since the date of the decree, the means to pay substant of the decree and neglected to pay the same Select the correct answer,	I, III and IV
63	As per The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a decree ex parte can be set aside against a defendant I. if he satisfies the Court that the summons was tot duly served, II. if he satisfies the Court that he was prevented by any sufficient cause from appearing why was called on for hearing. III. if he satisfies the Court that there has been an irregularity in the service of summo fact that defendant had notice of the date of hearing and lund suflijent time to appe the plaintiff's claim. IV. without notice being served on the opposite party.	I and II
64	When is a confession made by a person in police custody admissible under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?	Only if it is made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate
65	Which Section of The Bharatiya Saksiya Adhiniyam, 2023 pertains to opinions of exports 7	Section 39
66	Which of the following statements is incorrect as per The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?	A agrees absolutely in writing to pay B one thousand rupees on 1st March, 2023. The fact that, at the same time, an oral agreement was made that the money should not be paid till 31st March, 2023 can be proved.
67	As per The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, two persons are said to be within the "degrees of prohibitet relationship" if: I. one is a lineal ascendant of the other, ineluding relationship by adoption. II. one was the wife or husband of a lineal ascendant or descendant of the other, including relationsh by half or uterine blood as well as by full blood. III. one was the wife of the brother or of the father's or mother's brother or of the grandfather's grandmother's brother of the other. IV. Ise two are brother and sister, unele and niece, aunt and nephew, or children of brother and or of two brothers or of two sisters.	I, II, III and IV
68	Which Article of the Constitution of Iratia lays down the fundamental duty of every citizen to protect and improve the natural environment?	Article 51A(g)
69	The grounds for decree for dissolution of marriage under Section 2 of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939 are that the I. whereabouts of the husband have not been known for a period of two years. II. husband has been sentenced to imprisonment for a period of five years, III. husband has failed to perform, without reasonable cause, his marital obligations for a period of two years. IV. husband has neglected or has failed to provide for maintenance of his wife for a period	None of these
70	As per The Information Technology Act, 2000, "intermediary", with respect to any particular electronie records, means any person who on behalf of another person receives, stores or transmits that record or provides any service with respect to that record and includes: I. telecom service providers. II. search engines. III. cyber cafes. IV. online-auction sites.	I, II, III and IV
71	Under Section 37 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, which of the following orders is not appealable?	Refusing to appoint arbitrator under Section 11.
72	Under Section 9A of The Advocates Act, 1961, a legal aid committee constituted by a Bar Council shall consist of:	Not exceeding nime but not less than five members.
73	Which Section of the Advocates Act, 1961 provides for the disciplinary powers of the Bar Council of India ?	Section 36
74	Match List I (General Defences in Tott) with List II (Leading Cases) and select the correct answer using the codes given below List I i. Actoftind ii. Consent (Polenti non fit injuria) iii. Statutory Authority Iv. Necessity List II 1. Vaughan y Tuff Vale Rail Co. (1860) 5H & N679 2. Kirk v Gregory (1876) 1 Ex. D. 55 3. Nichols v. Marsland (1876) 2 Ex. D. 1 4. Hall v Brooklands Auto Racing club (1933)1 KB 2025	i-3, ii-4, iii-1, iv-2
75	The Central Consumer Protection Council, as provided under Section 3(2) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, shall consist of:	a Chairperson and such other members as may be prescribed
76	iIn which of the following cases, the Supreme Court of India held that, the Preamble is not part of the Constitution?	In re: The Berubari Union and Exchange of Enclaves, AIR 1960 SC. 845
77	Which Article in the Constitution of India relates to the subject matter of laws made by Parliament to give effect to treaties and international agreements ?	Article 253
78	In which of the following judgment's was the issue of 'right to privacy dealt with by the Supreme Court of India? I. Kharak Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh & Ors. (AIR 1963 SC 1295) II. PUCL v. Union of India (AIR 1997 SC 568) III. Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) & Anr. v. Union of India & Ors. (2017) 10 SCC 1 IV. M.P. Sharma v. Satish Chandra (AIR 1954 SC 300)	I, II, III and IV
79	Which of the following actions is required if territory is ceded to any other country by the Union of India?	Legislative enactment by the Parliament, and then executive action of the Union of India
80	The President has referred a question to the Supreme Court and the Supreme Court, as per Article 143 of the consitution of India, has advised the president accordingly, Can the advice given by the Supreme Court be considered as 'judicial precedent"?	o, because it is not considered as a judgment
81	In a criminal trial of defamation, the trial court ie, the High Court has restrained publication of any news on the given case. Which of the following constitutional powers has became of the High Court while passing given order?	Inherent power
82	The Supreme Court of India has declared that "Right to Information" is a fundamental right of every citizen of India. Which of the following stated provisions is used as source of the fundamental right given by the Court?	Article 19(1)(a), Constitution of India
83	Which of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India deals with the subject matter of 'Valiadation of certain Acts & Regulations ?	Schedule IX
84	Consider the following statements regarding Article 32 of the Constitution of India I. The Article is silent about the locus standi about who may approach the Supreme court. II. The Article is silent about the opposite party against whom the relief under Article 32 may be granted. III. The Article creates room for even a sixth type of writ within its scope. Select the correct answer.	All Statements are true
85	By virtue of Articles 129 and 215, the Supreme Court of India and the High Court in the states are courts of record and possess contempt Jurisdiction. What is true about the lower judiciary in the same connection ?	The respective High Courts can take up the matter of such a contempt under whose jurisdition the lower court falls.
86	The Supreme Court of India in R.K. Anand v. Registrar, Delhi High Court (2009) held an advoacte guilty of misconduct for	interfering in a criminal trial by attempting to influence a witness,
87	Match List I (with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below List I i. Legitimacy of children of void and voidable muriages ii. Punishment of ligamy iii. Judicial separation iv. Voidable matcinges List II 1. Section 10. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 2. Section 12, The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 3. Section 17, The Hindu Marriage Act, 4. Section 16, The Hindu Marriage Act,	i-4, ii-3, iii-1, iv-2
88	Under the lodian Contract Act, 1872, what happens if the principal debtor leaves part of the debt unpaid and there are two or more co-suroties?	The co-suroties slure the unpaid portion in equal contribution
89	Under the Specifle Relief Act, 1963, when can a defendant in possession compelled to deliver it to the plaintiff?	When the property is bell as agent or thistee of the plaintifr
90	Read the following statements and choose the correct option Statement 1: Under the Administrative Tribumals Act, 1985, a Joint Administrative Tribunal for two or more States exercises the same jurisdiction, powers, and authority as an Administrative Tribunal for those States Statement 2: For the purpams of contempt. a Tritual exercima pessers similar to those of a Highurt and references to "High Court" in the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 are construed to include such Tribunals In the context of the above stament under the Adminstartive Tribunals Act, 1985, which one following is correct	Both the Statements are true
91	Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (Ry 20 Assertion (A): A Moncy Bill can be introduced only in the House of the People (Lok Sabha) and not in the Council of States (Rajya Sahha) Reason (R): The Council of States may only make recommendations on a Money Bill within 14 days, but the House of the People may accept or roject them, and in either case, the Bill is deemed to be passed In the context of the above assertion and reason under Article 107 of the Constitution of India, which one of the following is correct?	Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
92	A company, registered under The Companies Act, 2013, is required to file a declaration of commencement of business before starting operations The directors ignore this obligation, and the firm commences business activities without filing the declaratim. How much penalty can be imposed on the company by the Registrar concerned for such non-compliance?	Rs 50,000
93	If multiple offences carry different punishments but it is unclear which one has been committed, how does Section 72 of the Indian Penal Code ensure proportional justice?	By imposing punishment for the offence with the lowest prescribed term
94	Mr. X owns a bakery where he employs Y. a 16-year-old adolescent. At first, X gives Y every off every sunday as his weekly holiday. After two months, X decides to change the weekly holiday to Wednesday and pastes a notice about this change on the bakery wall. According to the Child and Adolescerin (Prohibition and Regulation) Act. 1986, this change is	invalid, since weekly holidays cannot be altered before completion of at least three months.
95	Which person will nor be treated as a comuner under the definition of the Consumer Protect 2019?	A person who purchases goods for the purpose of resale or for any commercial purpose.
96	Given below are two statements, tine labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Assertion (A): The President of India has the power to grant pandons, reprieves, respites of punishment, or to suspend, remit, or commute the sentence of any person convicted cases where the punishment is by a Court Martial er where the sentence is death. Resson (R): This power under Article 72 overrides and completely nullifies the powers to comende or remit a death sentence under State law	(A) is ture but (R) is flase
97	In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Concludons, I and II Statement: Under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, a Magistrate may issue a protection order to prevent the respondent from committing acts of domestic violence, contacting the appreved person, alienating assets or strulhan without permission, or causing latis to her dependents. Conclusions: I. A protection onder can cover be just physical violence but also financial and emotional aspects of domestic violence. II. The Magistrate has wide powers in restrict the respondent's crasduct to safeguand the agatieved person and her dependents. In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions under the Protection of Women from L Violence Act, 2005, which one of the following is correct"	Both Conclusions I and II follows
98	According to the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, which factor determines the jurisdiction of the authority in applying for a driving license	The place where the applicant ordinarily resides of cumes on butiness
99	If a convict sentenced to life imprisonment is being considered for remission fractions under section 57 of the Indian Penal Code, which equivalent term of years is applied by the court?	Twenty years of imprisonment
100	According to the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972, under what circumstance is the completion of five year continuous service not mandatory for payment of gratuity to an employee by his employer?	Death or disablement of the employee dus to aceident or disease

AIBE 20 Exam Analysis 2025: Student Reviews

Candidates can check out the reviews shared by AIBE 20 test-takers below:

Based on the intial feedback from the aspirants, the paper was "Moderate to Tough".
A significant number of questions were asked from the "Constitutional Law" section, and many of them were challenging and required more time to select the correct answers.
In contrast, the questions from the "Indian Penal Code (IPC)" and the 'Evidence Act' were straightforward and relatively simple to attempt.
One candidate mentioned that the exam contained a large number of questions derived from the newly updated syllabus.
Another aspirant noted that many students struggled with the questions from the Income Tax section because they did not have the relevant Bare Acts with them.
In this year’s AIBE 20 examination, statement–conclusion questions as well as assertion - reason items were introduced.

Overall AIBE 20 Exam Analysis 2025

Find the detailed question paper analysis of AIBE 20 Exam 2025 in the tabular format below-

Particulars	Analysis
What was the overall difficulty level of the paper?	Moderate to Tough
Which were the easiest topics?	Indian Penal Code (IPC) Evidence Act Law Related to Taxation Administrative Law Company Law Land Acquisition Act Labour and Industrial Laws
Which were the toughest topics?	Cyber Law Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) Public Interest Litigation (PIL)
Which topics were of the highest weightage?	Constitutional Law
Was the paper time-consuming?	Yes, little bit

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